ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100%

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ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100%

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  1. A server administrator needs to set up a new server with disk fault tolerance technology. The administrator decides to deploy RAID 0+1 technology. What is the minimum number of disks needed to deploy the disk array setting?

    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
      Explanation:

      RAID 0+1 combines data striping and data mirroring. The minimum number of disks required for data striping is 2 and the minimum number of disks (or disk sets) for data mirroring is 2 as well.
  2. A user has detected that one of the virtual machines in a computer is infected with a virus. Which statement about the situation is likely to be true?

    • The host operating system is not necessarily infected with a virus.
    • The host machine operating system has a bug.
    • All of the virtual machines running on the host are infected with a virus.
    • The host machine antivirus program requires an update.
      Explanation:

      The virtual machines work separately from the host operating systems, even though they use the same system resources. The weaknesses and vulnerabilities from one virtual machine are not spread to other virtual machines or the host operating system.
  3. Which fire protection system would be best for a university computer/electronics lab?

    • an overhead sprinkler system
    • an electronic ion spreader
    • a nonwater based fire extinguisher
    • fire suppressing hazmat blankets and supressors
  4. Why should a technician avoid opening the casing of a power supply?

    • Power supplies must always be replaced, not repaired.
    • Hazardous levels of electricity may be present inside the power supply.
    • Power supplies are very fragile, expensive, and easy to damage.
    • Only the power supply manufacturer can open the casing of a power supply.
      Explanation:

      Power supplies contain high voltage, and only highly-trained technicians should attempt to repair them. A power supply can still hold dangerous levels of electricity even after being disconnected from the mains power.
  5. What is the first step a technician should take when preparing to work on the inside of a computer?

    • Remove the power supply.
    • Disconnect the computer from power.
    • Disconnect the computer from the network.
    • Remove external devices such as a mouse.
      Explanation:

      Before any service inside a computer is performed, the PC should be turned off and disconnected from any source of power to reduce the risk of shock.
  6. What tool can be used to find and attempt to fix file structural errors on a hard disk in Windows 7?

    • Format
    • Sfc
    • Rd
    • Chkdsk
      Explanation:

      Chkdsk attempts to correct file structural errors. Format is used to prepare a storage deviceso that it may store data. System file checker (sfc) replaces corrupt operating system files. Remove directory (rd) is used to delete a directory from the file structure.
  7. A customer asks for a solution to a printer problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician. What should the technician do?

    • Try to fix the problem anyway.
    • Tell the customer to call the printer manufacturer to fix the problem.
    • Gather as much informatio​n as possible and escalate the problem.
    • Ask the customer to call again when another technician can provide a solution to the problem.
      Explanation:

      Trying to fix a problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician may create additional problems.
  8. Which statement that is related to running 64-bit software is correct?

    • 64-bit software requires a 64-bit processor but can run on a 32-bit operating system.
    • 64-bit software requires a 64-bit processor and a 64-bit operating system.
    • 64-bit software can run on a 32-bit processor but requires a 64-bit operating system.
    • 64-bit software can run on a 32-bit processor using a 32-bit operating system but the software performance will be slower.
      Explanation:

      32-bit software can run on a 64-bit processor running a 64-bit operating system. 64-bit software can only run on a 64-bit processor running a 64-bit operating system.
  9. Which statement is correct about installing a 32-bit operating system on a x64 architecture?

    • The OS will always make use of all the RAM available.
    • The OS will run correctly.
    • The OS can address more than 128 GB of memory.
    • This combination will provide better security.
      Explanation:

      A 32-bit operating system can run on a x64 architecture, but it will not be able to use more than 4 GB of the system memory. A 64-bit OS includes features that provide additional security.
  10. What action should a technician take before upgrading computers from Vista to Windows 7?

    • Run Vista Upgrade Analyzer.
    • Run Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
    • Uninstall all programs.
    • Upgrade the video card.
      Explanation:

      When an upgrade from Vista to Windows 7 is being planned, the first step is to download and run the Windows 7 Upgrade advisor. It is not necessary in that situation to uninstall all programs or to upgrade the video card, as the requirements are the same for the two operating systems.
  11. What is a possible situation when it might be necessary to boot Windows 7 from a USB device, a CD, or a DVD?

    • to disable background services
    • to delete registry keys
    • to partition the hard drive
    • to repair the system
      Explanation:

      Disabling background services, deleting registry keys, and partitioning the hard drive do not require rebooting a PC. It might be necessary to boot a computer from a USB drive in order to repair the system in some situations.
  12. What type of partition has the ability to create volumes spanning across more than one disk?

    • primary
    • active
    • extended
    • dynamic
      Explanation:

      The primary partition contains the operating system files and is usually the first partition. The OS uses the active partition to boot the computer. The extended partition normally uses the remaining free space on a hard drive or takes the place of a primary partition. A dynamic partition is the only type of partition that allows creating volumes spanning over more than one disk.
  13. What type of file system allows the use of files larger than 5 GB and is mostly used on internal hard drives?

    • FAT32
    • FAT64
    • NTFS
    • CDFS
    • exFAT
      Explanation:

      The file system exFAT, also known as FAT64, is used to address some of the shortcoming of FAT32 and is mainly used for USB flash drives. CDFS is used for optical drives. FAT32 allows the storage of files up to 4 GB in size. NTFS allows the storage of files up to 16 TB in size.
  14. Which user account should be used only to perform system management and not as the account for regular use?

    • guest
    • standard user
    • administrator
    • power user
      Explanation:

      The administrator account is used to manage the computer and is very powerful. Best practices recommend that it be used only when it is needed to avoid accidentally performing significant changes to the system.
  15. Which type of user account is created automatically during a Windows 8.1 installation?

    • Administrator
    • Guest
    • Remote Desktop user
    • Standard user
      Explanation:

      During a Windows 8.1 installation the Administrator account is created automatically. All other accounts have to be created manually.
  16. A technician is attempting to repair a Windows 7 laptop that has a missing or corrupt OS file that prevents Windows 7 from starting up. The technician reboots the laptop and accesses the WinRE via the F8 key. Which option must the technician choose in the System Recovery menu to locate and fix the missing or corrupt system files?

    • Startup Repair
    • System Restore
    • System Image Recovery
    • Windows Memory Diagnostic
      Explanation:

      Startup Repair will scan the hard drive and identify and fix any missing or corrupt OS files. WinRE options can also be accessed by booting from the installation media or a system repair disk.
  17. When would the PXE option be used when repairing a PC?

    • The display cannot be seen clearly.
    • There is no response from the mouse or keyboard.
    • The computer needs a replacement operating system.
    • A newly installed application caused the system to perform erratically.
      Explanation:

      The Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE, but pronounced pixie) BIOS boot option is used to install an operating system from a remote network location.​
  18. A user wants to extend a primary partition formatted with the NTFS file system with the unallocated space on the hard disk. What must the user do after the primary partition is extended to make it usable?

    • Convert the disk type to dynamic.
    • Ensure that the disk type is basic.
    • Format the disk with the FAT64 file system.
    • Partition the new space as a basic disk.
      Explanation:

      A partition must be formatted with the NTFS file system in order to extend it by using the unallocated space on the disk. Once the partition has been extended, the disk type must be converted to a dynamic disk in order for the new partition to be accessible.
  19. A user is viewing the Windows Disk Management utility and notices that one of the disks is marked as Foreign. What does this mean?

    • This is a basic disk that has just been converted to a dynamic disk.
    • This is a dynamic disk whose partition has been deleted.
    • This is a dynamic disk from another PC running Windows.
    • This is a disk that does not contain a valid signature.
      Explanation:

      When a dynamic disk is removed from another Windows PC and installed onto the current PC, the disk manager will note this and mark it as Foreign within the Disk Management utility.
  20. What are two file attributes in the Windows environment? (Choose two.)

    • details
    • archive
    • read-only
    • security
    • general
      Explanation:

      The file attributes are read-only, archive, hidden, and system. Details, security, and general are tabs on the file Properties applet.
  21. What are two functions of hypervisors? (Choose two.)

    • to partition the hard drive to run virtual machines
    • to protect the host from malware infection from the virtual machines
    • to manage virtual machines
    • to allocate physical system resources to virtual machines
    • to share the antivirus software across the virtual machines
      Explanation:

      The hypervisor does not protect the hosting OS from malware. Neither does it allow sharing software across virtual machines. The hard drive of the supporting computer does not need to be partitioned to run virtual machines. The hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer and allocates physical system resources to them.
  22. Which Windows utility can be used to schedule a regular backup for preventive maintenance?

    • Windows Task Scheduler
    • Windows Task Manager
    • Disk Cleanup
    • System Restore
      Explanation:

      Windows Task Scheduler is a tool that helps scheduling repetitive tasks, such as backups, antivirus scans, and more.
  23. Which statement is correct about applying firmware updates?

    • Firmware updates are sometimes irreversible.
    • It is possible to use the Roll Back feature to reverse the change.
    • The firmware updates can be installed automatically using the Windows Service Pack utility.
    • Firmware updates should not be included as part of the preventive maintenance program.
      Explanation:

      Firmware updates can make the hardware unusable if not performed correctly. Sometimes it is not possible to revert to the original firmware once the update has been performed because of how the changes are applied to the EPROM technology.
  24. What is true about restore points?

    • Once System Restore is used to restore a system, the change is irreversible.
    • Restore points back up personal data files.
    • Restore points recover corrupted or deleted data files.
    • Restore points should always be created before making changes to a system.
      Explanation:

      Any change from a system restore is reversible. A restore point only contains information about the system and registry settings and therefore cannot be used to backup or recover data files.
  25. A user has a computer that is infected with spyware. What should be performed before removing the spyware?

    • Delete system restore files.
    • Run Windows Update.
    • Run a disk defragmentation.
    • Create a full backup.
      Explanation:

      An infected computer that performs a system restore will save the virus or spyware along with the restore point. Therefore, system restore files must be deleted before the removal of malware.
  26. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 7 laptop that takes significantly longer than expected when performing a file search. What is the possible cause?

    • The file system is corrupt.
    • The disk type is basic.
    • The disk type is dynamic.
    • The file permissions are not set.
    • The index service is not running.
      Explanation:

      The Windows indexing service is used to speed up file searches. A slow search may be the result of either the index service not running or not indexing the correct location.
  27. A user reports that a PC is losing files, not opening some files, and is performing slowly. The technician suspects problems with the hard drive. What should be done to protect the data that is on the PC and to determine the source of the problem, without risking total drive failure?

    • Run the format command, then replace the hard drive.
    • Run chkdsk, then run format.
    • Back up all important files, then replace the hard drive.
    • Back up all important files, then run chkdsk.
    • Run chkdsk, then back up all important files.
      Explanation:

      Backing up important files is the first step in protecting existing data. After backing up, running chkdsk will allow the technician to determine if there are bad sectors on the hard drive, without losing any data.
  28. A user logs into Active Directory on a workstation and the user home directory does not redirect to a network share on a file server. A technician suspects that the group policy setting is incorrect. Which command can the technician use to verify the group policy settings?

    • rstrui
    • runas
    • tasklist
    • gpresult
    • gpupdate
      Explanation:

      The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

      • runas – runs a program or tool with different permissions
      • rstrui – starts the System Restore utility
      • gpresult – displays group policy settings
      • gpupdate – refreshes group policy settings
      • tasklist – displays currently running applications
  29. A company has recently deployed Active Directory and now a workstation cannot connect to a network resource. A technician takes corrective action by modifying group policy settings. Which command should the technician use to make the workstation synchronize with the new settings?

    • runas
    • rstrui
    • tasklist
    • gpresult
    • gpupdate
      Explanation:

      The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

      • runas – runs a program or tool with different permissions
      • rstrui – starts the System Restore utility
      • gpresult – displays group policy settings
      • gpupdate – refreshes group policy settings
      • tasklist – displays currently running applications
  30. A wired network is undergoing several changes that could leave it vulnerable to connection by unauthorized devices while the work is in progress. Which two temporary measures would enable the authorized devices to continue to have network access but prevent unauthorized devices from connecting? (Choose two.)

    • Disable DNS.
    • Disable SSID broadcast.
    • Disable DHCP.
    • Subnet the network.
    • Assign static IP addresses to the authorized devices.
      Explanation:

      Disabling DHCP and assigning static IP addresses only to authorized devices will prevent unauthorized devices from automatically obtaining IP address information. Without the correct IP address information, the unauthorized devices will not be able to communicate over the network. Disabling DNS will result in all connected devices no longer automatically being able to communicate with network resources by name (IP addresses would have to be used.), but will not prevent unauthorized devices from connecting and enabling potentially malicious access from occurring. Subnetting the network will change the range of IP addresses used but not prevent unauthorized network access. Disabling SSID broadcasts is only applicable to wireless networks, not wired networks.
  31. Refer to the exhibit. In what situation would a technician use this tab?

    ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100% 01

    ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100% 01

    • When the device will not be using the Internet.
    • When a laptop is used both at work with DHCP and at home with a static IP address.
    • When a device is behind a firewall and software is being used that needs access to a remote network.
    • When the computer will be using a VPN connection and accessing the Internet while connected through the VPN.
      Explanation:

      The Alternate Configuration tab allows a device to have two IP configurations. One configuration might set the network card to DCHP using the General tab and then configure a static IP address for the home network using the Alternate Configuration tab.
  32. On a PC that is running Windows 7 Ultimate, a user sets up a home entertainment system and creates a homegroup. The user then joins two other PCs to the workgroup, one PC running Windows 7 Starter and the other running Windows 7 Home Basic. What else must the user do in order to have the user accounts on the Windows 7 Home Basic and Windows 7 Starter PCs access the shares on the home entertainment system?

    • Users have to be added to the user accounts on the home entertainment PC.
    • Users on the PC that is running Windows Starter cannot join the homegroup.
    • Users on the PC that is running Windows Home Basic will have to be manually added to the homegroup.
    • User accounts on all three PCs have to be added to the homegroup.
    • Nothing has to be done. All users accounts on all the PCs will automatically be added to the homegroup.
      Explanation:

      When Windows 7 PCs join a homegroup all user accounts on all the PCs are added to the homegroup. Windows 7 Starter and Windows 7 Home Basic PCs can join the homegroup but cannot be used to create a homegroup.
  33. A user is reporting that a file has been shared specifically with another user on the network, but the other user opens the file and is unable to save it once edited. What is the probable cause?

    • The user shared the document with Read permissions.
    • The user forgot to share the parent folder.
    • The file has the Archive attribute enabled.
    • The file has been deleted.
      Explanation:

      The permission setting should have been Change or Full Control. The Read permission does not allow edited files to be saved.
  34. Which character of the Cloud model provides easy monitoring, controlling, reporting, and billing for both the provider and customers?

    • rapid elasticity
    • resource pooling
    • measured service
    • broad network access
    • on-demand self-service
      Explanation:

      With measured service of the Cloud model, the resource usage can be easily monitored, controlled, reported, and billed to provide full visibility to both the Cloud service provider and customers.
  35. A business organization is configuring security on the mobile devices that are used in the organization. The security policy states that business data on mobile devices should only ever be accessed by employees. Which mobile device security feature can be used to best ensure that business data is rendered completely inaccessible if the device is lost or stolen?

    • remote lock
    • remote wipe
    • passcode lock
    • sandbox
      Explanation:

      Remote wipe is a security feature that remotely clears the device of all user data to prevent it from being maliciously compromised. Remote lock and the user passcode lock features on mobile devices can help prevent theft of private information but the data remains on the device and may be accessed if the passcode is ever broken. Sandbox describes the running of mobile apps separate from the operating system.
  36. An administrative assistant tries to link a Bluetooth keyboard and mouse to a computer. The keyboard does not work, but the mouse works fine. What are two issues that could cause this situation? (Choose two.)

    • Wi-Fi is turned off.
    • The keyboard battery is dead.
    • Bluetooth is turned off.
    • The Num Lock key has been inadvertently pressed.
    • The keyboard is too far from the computer
  37. What is needed from Apple and Google in order for individual programmers to develop apps for iOS and Android devices?

    • SLA
    • SDK
    • firmware
    • iOS or Android device
      Explanation:

      Both Apple and Google release their own software development kits (SDKs) that allow developers to create apps for iOS and Android mobile devices. Developers can run the SDK and create apps on a simulator. SLA is an agreement between a service provider and customers.
  38. Which type of malware is disguised as a legitimate program?

    • adware
    • worm
    • Trojan
    • spyware
      Explanation:

      Trojan horses disguise themselves as legitimate programs. Worms replicate themselves across a network. Adware may attach to a legitimate program, but does not disguise itself. Spyware monitors the activities of a user.

  39. After complaints from users, a technician identifies that the college web server is running very slowly. A check of the server reveals that there are an unusually large number of TCP requests coming from multiple locations on the Internet. What is the source of the problem?

    • A DDoS attack is in progress.
    • The server is infected with a virus.
    • There is insufficient bandwidth to connect to the server.
    • There is a replay attack in progress.
      Explanation:

      The source of the problem cannot be a virus because in this situation the server is passive and at the receiving end of the attack. A replay attack uses intercepted and recorded data in an attempt to gain access to an unauthorized server. This type of attack does not involve multiple computers. The issue is not the bandwidth available, but the number of TCP connections taking place. Receiving a large number of connections from multiple locations is the main symptom of a distributed denial of service attack which use botnets or zombie computers.
  40. Which security threat hides the resources that it uses from antivirus programs?

    • worm
    • Trojan
    • rootkit
    • spyware
      Explanation:

      Rootkits target a known vulnerability to gain administrator-level access. This gives the rootkit the ability to hide itself. Trojans, worms, and spyware do not gain administrator level access.
  41. A user receives an email requesting verification of the password that is used to access bank files. What type of security threat is this?

    • virus
    • social engineering
    • phishing
    • malware
      Explanation:

      Phishing is a form of attack that starts with the attacker pretending to be a legitimate entity and then tries to gather information that can be used to conduct the exploit.
  42. A cleaner attempts to enter a computer lab but is denied entry by the receptionist because there is no scheduled cleaning for that day. What type of attack was just prevented?

    • Trojan
    • shoulder surfing
    • war driving
    • social engineering
    • phishing
      Explanation:

      Social engineering is when a person attempts to manipulate another individual to gain access to information or resources to which they are not entitled.
  43. Which two precautions can help prevent social engineering? (Choose two.)

    • Always ask for the ID of unknown persons.
    • Escort all visitors.
    • Keep your password securely under your keyboard.
    • Do not allow any customers into the workplace.
    • Always require a user name and password to be configured.
      Explanation:

      Asking for IDs and escorting visitors are effective ways to prevent social engineering. Users should never keep their passwords in the work area. Eliminating customers is not always practical for business purposes.
  44. A company has replaced five desktop computers in the accounting and finance department with new computers. The plan is to donate the recovered computers in a fully functional state to a not-for-profit community organization. How can the company ensure that sensitive financial data cannot be accessed once the computers are donated?

    • Data wipe the hard drives by using specialized software.
    • Perform a high-level format on the hard drives.
    • Drill holes through the hard drive platters.
    • Delete all the files and directories on the hard drives.
      Explanation:

      Data wiping the hard drives with software that will securely erase all data will ensure that company data cannot later be accessed. This may be time consuming but for a small number of computers this is more cost-effective than the expense of degaussing. Deleting all the files and directories on the hard drives or performing a high-level format on each drive will leave the computers vulnerable to having the company data recovered by specific forensic software. Drilling holes in the hard drive platters would mean that the computers are no longer in working condition.
  45. A technician needs to permanently destroy data on some drives before disposing of them. What is the best way to do this?

    • Partition the hard drives.
    • Perform a full format.
    • Overwrite the drives
    • Shatter the drive platters with a hammer.
      Explanation:

      The best way to permanently destroy data is by shattering the platters of the hard drives with a hammer.
  46. Which technology allows a mobile device to automatically rotate what is being displayed on the screen as the physical orientation of the device is changed?

    • Time Machine
    • accelerometer
    • screen calibration
    • geocaching
      Explanation:

      An accelerometer allows the device to adapt based on the position of the device. This feature can be disabled or enabled through the Settings > Display option path.
  47. What three technologies enable virtual assistants to interact with end users via voice commands? (Choose three.)

    • VoIP
    • multi-threading
    • machine learning
    • voice recognition
    • data fault tolerance
    • artificial intelligence
      Explanation:

      A digital assistant, or virtual assistant, relies on artificial intelligence, machine learning, and voice recognition technology to understand conversational-style voice commands.
  48. Which two guidelines are appropriate for creating strong passwords? (Choose two.)

    • Use at least eight characters.
    • Include letters, numbers, and symbols.
    • Change the password once each year.
    • Use only upper case and numeric values in passwords.
    • Passwords should contain symbols only.
      Explanation:

      Strong passwords should be at least eight characters, and should include upper and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols. Although passwords should be changed regularly as specified in the local security policy, the amount of time between changes has no effect on the creation of strong passwords. Limiting a password to only symbols, or to only numbers and upper case letters, does not provide the strongest password possible.
  49. A user is able to only access files required to perform a specific task. What type of security practice is being applied?

    • principle of privileges
    • principle of necessary privilege
    • principle of most privilege
    • principle of least privilege
      Explanation:

      Limiting access to files or folders that are needed to perform a specific job is known as the principle of least privilege. The other options do not exist.

  50. Which three items are biometric security devices? (Choose three.)

    • fingerprint reader
    • retina scanner
    • voice recognition
    • smart card
    • key fob
    • password
      Explanation:

      Fingerprint readers, retina scanners, and voice recognition are all biometric devices, comparing physical characteristics of the user to stored data to authenticate the user. Smart cards, key fobs, and passwords are all security measures, but do not rely on biometrics.

  51. How can a user prevent specific applications from accessing a Windows computer over a network?

    • Enable MAC address filtering.
    • Disable automatic IP address assignment.
    • Block specific TCP or UDP ports in Windows Firewall.
    • Change default usernames and passwords.
      Explanation:

      Network applications have specific TCP or UDP ports that can be left open or blocked in Windows Firewall. Disabling automatic IP address assignment may result in the computer not being able to connect to the network at all. Enabling MAC address filtering is not possible in Windows and would only block specific network hosts, not applications. Changing default usernames and passwords will secure the computer from unauthorized users, not from applications.
  52. A technician is troubleshooting a workstation in a domain that has been infected with a virus. What is the first step the technician should take to clean the infected workstation?

    • Run the antivirus software.
    • Update the antivirus software.
    • Turn off system restore.
    • Disconnect the workstation from the network.
      Explanation:

      The first step is to disconnect the infected workstation from the network. This will quarantine the infected workstation and prevent the virus from spreading throughout the network.
  53. What is required in order to connect a Wi-Fi enabled laptop to a WPA secured wireless network?

    • a security encryption key
    • a MAC address
    • a username and password
    • an updated wireless driver
      Explanation:

      Regardless of the levels of security configured on a WLAN, a WPA secured WLAN always requires the use of an encryption key. Without the proper key, a device cannot connect to the network.
  54. A technician is about to install and configure a wireless network at a small branch office. What is the first security measure the technician should apply immediately upon powering up the wireless router?

    • Configure encryption on the wireless router and the connected wireless devices.
    • Disable the wireless network SSID broadcast.
    • Change the default user-name and password of the wireless router.
    • Enable MAC address filtering on the wireless router.
      Explanation:

      The first action a technician should do to secure a new wireless network is to change the default user-name and password of the wireless router. The next action would usually be to configure encryption. Then once the initial group of wireless hosts have connected to the network, MAC address filtering would be enabled and SSID broadcast disabled. This will prevent new unauthorized hosts from finding and connecting to the wireless network.
  55. A company has a guest wireless network available for visitors while on the company premises. A technician has noted that unauthorized users are connecting to this wireless network from outside the premises. Which action can be taken to reduce unauthorized connections to the guest wireless network while enabling visitors to still connect quickly and easily without assistance while on the company premises?

    • Disable SSID broadcast.
    • Enable MAC address filtering.
    • Configure WPA encryption.
    • Reduce the radio power level.
      Explanation:

      Reducing the transmitted radio power to a level that gives network coverage only within the company premises will enable authorized visitors to continue to connect to the guest network connect quickly and easily without assistance, but prevent connection from outside the premises. Enabling MAC address filtering, configuring WPA encryption, and disabling SSID broadcast will prevent unauthorized access to the network. However, these actions will also make it more difficult for visitors to connect when the requirement is for quick and easy access without assistance.
  56. What is the most commonly used method to close an application that appears to be frozen on an OS X-based computer?

    • Use Force Quit.
    • Use Task Manager.
    • Access the Status menu.
    • Access the Notification Center.
      Explanation:

      To use Force Quit, right-click on the application icon that is not responding from the Dock and close the application.
  57. In a Linux operating system, which component interprets user commands and forwards them to the OS?

    • CLI
    • shell
    • kernel
    • application program
      Explanation:

      The functions of different components of a Linux system are as follows:

      • CLI – command-line interface, accepts user commands
      • shell – a program that interprets the user commands and passes them to the OS
      • kernel – manages CPU and RAM allocation to processes, system calls, and file systems
      • application program – program for various applications
  58. In the context of a Linux operating system, which command can be used to display the syntax and parameters for a specific command?

    • cat
    • man
    • grep
    • crontab
      Explanation:

      The functions of listed CLI commands of a Linux system are as follows:

      • cat – lists the contents of a file
      • man – displays the documentation for a specific command
      • crontab – manages the cron service for scheduling system tasks
      • grep – searches for specific strings of characters within a file or other commands outputs
  59. In Linux and OS X, which CLI command can be used to display the name of the current directory?

    • ps
    • pwd
    • sudo
    • chmod
      Explanation:

      The functions of listed CLI commands of Linux and OS X systems are as follows:

      • ps – lists the process currently running in the system
      • pwd – displays the name of the current directory
      • sudo – runs a command as another user
      • chmod – modifies file permissions
  60. A system administrator issues the apt-get command on a laptop that has Ubuntu installed. What is the function provided by the command?

    • to display or configure a wireless NIC
    • to install, configure, and remove packages
    • to list the applications currently running in the system
    • to allow a user to login as another user or to become a super user
      Explanation:

      The apt-get utility (also a command) is the Ubuntu Linux package manager. It is used to install, configure, and remove packages.
  61. A computer technician is notified by a user that there are no automated backups being created on an Apple computer. What is the first thing the technician should check?

    • correct date and time configuration
    • whether Time Machine is turned on
    • if space is available on the local drive
    • whether Remote Disc is enabled
      Explanation:

      Time Machine is the OS X backup tool. To verify whether the tool is turned on, access Settings > Time Machine.
  62. A user has been using a smartphone for several hours, but now the applications on the device have become unresponsive. What action should the user take?

    • Reconfigure settings.
    • Restore the mobile operating system from a backup.
    • Restart the device.
    • Reset the device to factory defaults.
      Explanation:

      Restoring a device to factory defaults should only be done if either or both of the following have failed: restarting the device or turning the device off and powering it back on again.
  63. A customer is explaining a problem with a computer to a technician. The technician recognizes the problem prior to the customer finishing the explanation. What should the technician do?

    • Interrupt the customer and let the customer know that the technician knows what the problem is.
    • Start working on the PC while listening to the customer at the same time.
    • Ask the customer to repeat the problem so that the technician can document it and verify all the facts.
    • Wait politely for the customer to finish explaining the problem.
      Explanation:

      It is always important to allow the customer to finish explaining the problem at hand. You should always be attentive and actively listen to the customer without interrupting and acknowledge the customer occasionally to affirm that you are actively listening to the customer.
  64. After consulting the manufacturer manuals, a technician applies a series of recommended solutions that resolve a problem with a workstation computer. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should perform?

    • Verify the solution and confirm full system functionality.
    • Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
    • Test the theory of probable cause.
    • Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
      Explanation:

      After the recommended solutions have been applied to resolve the problem, full system functionality should be verified and preventive measures implemented if applicable. This would be followed by documenting the solution and actions. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem and testing the theory of probable cause have already been completed in this scenario.
  65. A security audit for the human resources office finds that most employees leave confidential information on the screen when they are out of office for a short period of time. Which Windows control panel link should be used to make the monitor show a screen saver after a few minutes of inactivity and require that the user re-authenticate?

    • Windows Firewall
    • Device Manager
    • Personalization
    • Network and Sharing Center
      Explanation:

      Use the Control Panel > Personalization > Screen Saver path to select a screen saver and enable the On resume, display logon screen option.​
  66. When a user tries to run a program a missing or corrupt DLL message is displayed. What are two possible solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)

    • Reinstall the correct drivers.
    • Use the msconfig command to adjust the startup settings for the program.
    • Run Windows Startup Repair.
    • Run sfc/scannow in Safe Mode.
    • Register the DLL file using the regsvr32 command.
      Explanation:

      Two possible solutions to a reported missing or corrupt are to register the DLL file using the regsvr32 command or restart the computer in Safe Mode and run sfc/scannow. Windows Startup Repair is used solve Windows startup problems. Adjusting the program startup settings by using msconfig is applicable only to programs that start correctly. Drivers relate to hardware, not to programs.
  67. After questioning a user about the problems being experienced with a PC operating system, the support technician suspects that a recent service pack installation has failed. Which step of the troubleshooting process has the technician just concluded?

    • Test the theory to determine the cause of the problem.
    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    • Establish a theory of probable cause.
    • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
      Explanation:

      By suspecting that an operating system service pack has failed to install successfully, the technician has established a theory of probable cause of the problem. The next step would be to test the theory to determine the cause of the problem, followed by establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem. Documentation is the final step and would occur after the solution has been verified and the system restored to full functionality.
  68. A support desk technician is asking a customer a series of questions about a problem connecting to the network. Which step of the troubleshooting process is the technician applying?

    • Identify the problem.
    • Establish a theory of probable cause.
    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    • Test the theory to determine cause.
      Explanation:

      Before any solutions can be proposed or tested, the problem must first be identified. This is done by gathering information from the customer by asking questions and clarifying details of the problem.
  69. A computer technician has successfully returned a laptop to full operation and verified system functionality. Actions the technician performed included modifying the registry and applying patches to the operating systems. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should do?

    • Reboot the computer.
    • Document the solution.
    • Consult manufacturer manuals and repair logs.
    • Re-attach and test all peripherals.
      Explanation:

      The technician is ready to conclude the troubleshooting process by documenting the solution. The manufacturer manuals and repair logs would be consulted to establish a plan of action and resolve the problem before the solution has been applied. Rebooting the computer, and re-attaching and testing all peripherals, would occur during the testing and verification stage after the solution has been implemented.
  70. What is a feature that can be used by an administrator to prevent unauthorized users from connecting to a wireless access point?

    • MAC filtering
    • software firewall
    • proxy server
    • WPA encryption
      Explanation:

      Limiting a certain set of MAC addresses to connect to an access point is a way to ensure that only those devices are allowed to use the wireless network. A software firewall is used to prevent other users from gaining access to the protected computer. Configuring WPA encryption does not guarantee that the unauthorized user will not find the way to connect to the network. A proxy server is mostly used to filter traffic based on content.
  71. A user reports that a computer is unable to print on an inkjet printer. The technician has determined that there is no paper in the paper bin. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process?

    • Establish a plan of action.
    • Determine the exact cause.
    • Verify system functionality.
    • Document the findings.
      Explanation:

      What the technician just did was to determine the exact cause. What is next in the troubleshooting process is to establish a plan of action.
  72. A support desk technician is dealing with an angry customer. Which two approaches should the technician take in dealing with the customer? (Choose two.)

    • Ask socially related questions to direct the customer away from the problem.
    • Work to redirect the conversation to solving the problem.
    • Immediately transfer the customer to a higher level technician.
    • Reply to the customer with the same level of anger.
    • Let the customer explain the problem without interrupting.
      Explanation:

      Angry customers should be allowed to explain the problem, then be redirected to discussing how the problem can be solved. Transferring the customer, replying in a rude tone, and asking unrelated questions will usually increase, not ease, the anger being expressed by the customer.
  73. A technician working on a computer discovers what is suspected to be illegal activity. Which three pieces of information should be immediately documented? (Choose three.)

    • duration of the suspected illegal activity
    • evidence of the suspected illegal activity
    • why the computer was accessed by the technician
    • details of all past users of the computer
    • technical specifications of the computer
    • location of the computer
      Explanation:

      The initial reason for accessing the computer, the suspected illegal matter or operations, and the location of the computer are immediately apparent to the technician and should be among the first details documented. Details of past computer users and the duration of the illegal activity are matters that the appropriate investigators will determine. The technical specifications of the computer may have little relevance to its illegal use.
  74. A Windows PC that was formatted with the NTFS file system displays a missing or corrupt DLL error message when a certain program is run. What is the cause of this?

    • The DLL file was not installed with the program.
    • The NTFS file system does not support DLLs.
    • The OS must be 64 bit in order to support the DLL.
    • The DLL file was not registered during installation of the program.
      Explanation:

      Missing or corrupt DLL files can result when they are uninstalled in error when another program is being uninstalled or there is a failure in the registration process of the DLL during installation.
  75. What are two possible symptoms of MBR/GPT corruption in a workstation? (Choose two.)

    • The workstation continually restarts.
    • The workstation displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error.
    • The workstation displays a black or blue screen of death.
    • The workstation displays a “BOOTMGR is missing” error.
    • The workstation displays an “Inaccessible Boot Device” error.
      Explanation:

      When the MBR/GPT is corrupted, the workstation cannot identify the active partition in order to load a valid operating system. The error message “Inaccessible Boot Device” indicates that the active partition is determined. However, the device driver is incompatible with the boot controller or BOOTMGR is corrupted. The reason that a workstation continually restarts is probably that the workstation is set to restart when there is a failure or a startup file has become corrupted. The most likely reason for BSOD is an incompatible device driver or a hardware failure.
  76. When installing application software on a Windows 7 workstation, the user sees an error message indicating that the installation is unsuccessful. What should the user try next?

    • Run the chkdsk /R command.
    • Run the installation under compatibility mode.
    • Restart the installation process with the services.msc utility.
    • Use the bootrec /fixmbr command from the System Recovery option.
      Explanation:

      A possible reason that an application does not install successfully is that the application is not compatible with Windows 7. An application does not register its service if it is not installed successfully. The chkdsk command is used to check and recover disk errors. The bootrec command is used to check and recover the MBR/GPT of a system.
  77. A new computer workstation has been installed in a small office. The user of the workstation can print a document using a network printer on the LAN, but cannot access the Internet. What is a possible cause of the problem?

    • The TCP/IP stack is not functional.
    • The gateway IP address is misconfigured.
    • The DHCP server IP address is misconfigured.
    • The workstation is configured with a static IP address.
      Explanation:

      The fact that the workstation can print at a networked printer indicates that the TCP/IP stack is functional. However, that the workstation cannot communicate with external networks indicates that the most likely problem is the incorrect default gateway address. If the workstation is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, the DHCP server address does not to be configured.
  78. What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?

    • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0.
    • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
    • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
    • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network.
      Explanation:

      When workstations are configured with obtaining IP address automatically but DHCP servers are not available to respond to the requests, a workstation can assign itself an IP addresses from the 169.254.0.0/16 network.
  79. A user reports that during the boot up process of a Windows 7 workstation, the message “MBR has been changed or modified” appears. What is the most probable cause of the message?

    • A virus has damaged the MBR.
    • A virus has damaged the boot sector.
    • A boot sector virus has changed the MBR.
    • A virus damaged the Windows system files.
      Explanation:

      The change or modification of the MBR by a virus causes the system to display the message. A damaged MBR, damaged boot sector, and damaged Windows system files will cause different error messages to appear.
  80. Match the task to the Windows Control Panel utility. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100% 02

    ITE 6.0 A+ Cert Practice Exam 2 Answers 2018 2019 100% 02

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